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Fiqh al-Shafi`i or Fiqh al-Sunna?

Posted by Hamza Karamali, SunniPath Instructor on August 24th, 2007

In the Name of Allah, Most Merciful and Compassionate

The FAQ

In recent times, various Muslim circles have discussed whether we should follow the fiqh of one of the four Imams, such as the fiqh of Imam al-Shafi`i, the fiqh of Imam Abu Hanifa, etc., or whether we should follow the fiqh of the Sunna, or, better still, the fiqh of the Quran and Sunna. This dichotomy comes into high relief when a position documented in the fiqh of Imam al-Shafi`i, for example, is seemingly contradicted by the outward meaning of a hadith of the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace). Should we, in such cases, follow the fiqh of Imam al-Shafi`i, or should we be faithful to the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) and follow the sahih hadith?

The way that this question is phrased only allows for one answer. The problem, however, is that the question isn’t phrased correctly in the first place. To understand why, we need digress briefly into the field of Arabic Grammar.

Grammatical Digression

Two weeks ago in my Intermediate Arabic 1 class, we learned the difference between the two kinds of idafa in the Arabic language: the idafa ma`nawiyya and the idafa lafdhiyya. Mastering this simple concept gives remarkable insights into the Arabic language.

An idafa, for those unfamiliar with the term, is an “X of Y” association between two words. So, for example, rasulu Llahi (رسولُ اللهِ), meaning “the messenger of Allah,” is an idafa, as is kitabu zaydin (كتابُ زيدٍ), which means, “the book of Zayd.”

In post-Ajurrumiyya grammar manuals—such as the Qatr al-Nada of Ibn Hisham—scholars of Arabic grammar explain that an idafa is either a real idafa that actually associates one word to another—this is termed an idafa ma`nawiyya—or a “cosmetic” idafa that conceals something else going on behind the scenes—this is termed an idafa lafdhiyya.

In kitabu zaydin (“the book of Zayd”), for example, we have associated a “thing”—a book—to another “thing”—Zayd. This is a real idafa and is straightforward to understand. When, however, the associated (i.e., the first word in the idafa, often called the mudaf) is not a mere “thing” but rather an “action-word”, then we need to put our minds on high alert and be a little smarter in order to figure out what’s really being said.

There are many kinds of “action-words” in the Arabic language, but this post will restrict itself to the verbal noun (masdar). Examples of verbal nouns are: qira’ah (“reciting”), ta`allum (“learning”), and hifz (“memorizing”). Note that each of these words doesn’t merely signify a “thing”; rather, it signifies an action that is being done. When such words are associated to other words, we need to inquire further about the nature of the association: have we associated the action to its doer (i.e. the subject), or to its done-to (i.e. the object)?

For example, if I say qira’atu L-qurani (قرائةُ القرآنِ), then I have associated the action of recital to its done-to—the Quran is the object of the recitation, the thing that is recited. If, however, I say qira’atu Zaydin (قرآئةُ زيدٍ), then I have associated the action of recital to its doer—Zayd is not the thing that is being recited, but rather the doer of the recitation, the one who is doing the recitation.

Returning to the FAQ

After that quick grammatical digression—necessarily superficial in the interests of blog-post length—we can now revisit the question asked at the top of the post.

Fiqh, as it turns out, is a verbal noun that means “understanding”. Fiqh al-Shafi`i—“the understanding of Shafi`i”—is an idafa lafdhiyya where the action-word fiqh (“understanding”) has been associated to Shafi`i. The question that the grammarians will ask at this point is, “Has the verbal noun been associated to its doer, or to its done-to?” In other words, is Imam al-Shafi`i the one who is doing the action of understanding, or is he the one who is being understood?

We then ask the same question of the other idafa lafdhiyya in the question: in Fiqh al-Sunna—“the understanding of the Sunna”—has the action-word fiqh been associated to its doer or its done-to? In other words, is the Sunna the thing that is doing the action of the understanding, or is it the thing that has been understood?

The answers, as well as the conclusions that I’m about to mention should already be obvious to those of you who have been following the discussion thus far.

When we use the term Fiqh al-Shafi`i, we are associating the verbal noun to its doer and omitting mention of the done-to. In other words, Shafi`i is the one who is doing the action of understanding, and the object of his understanding is the Sunna, but this is not mentioned for reasons of brevity and obviousness (what else would Shafi`i be trying to understand?).

Those who use the term Fiqh al-Sunna are associating the verbal noun to its done-to and omitting mention of the doer. In other words, the thing that is being understood is the Sunna, but the one who is doing the understanding has not been mentioned. Why has the doer not been mentioned?

The reason why the doer has not been mentioned is to give the misleading impression that someone who is following Fiqh al-Sunna is following the understanding of the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) himself, whereas someone who is following Fiqh al-Shafi`i is merely following the understanding of a fallible human being. In other words, we are being made to believe that in the idafa, Fiqh al-Sunna, the verbal noun has been associated to its doer instead of its done-to.

The answer to the question at the top of the post is eloquently summarized by Shaykh Nuh Keller in his wonderful introduction to his book Al-Maqasid: Nawawi’s Manual of Islam, where he says,

To follow the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) was a simple matter for the Companions (Sahaba); they knew and loved him, and when he would tell them something, they said, “We hear and obey.” When he passed from this world, the Quranic imperative remained, …

… we have been ordered to follow the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace), and he is no longer alive to personally teach us. All that has reached us of it [i.e., Sacred Law, or Sharia], has reached us through men. And this is why Muslims from the earliest times have relied on the most knowledgeable of these men to take their religion from—whether in hadith, tenets of faith (`aqida), Quranic exegesis (tafsir), or the other Islamic sciences. The foremost of them were termed Imams, or “leaders”, in view of their position in each field, so their knowledge could be accepted and followed. (Al-Maqasid: Nawawi’s Manual of Islam, ix,x)

The question, in other words, is not whether we should follow Imam Shafi`i or the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace)—any Muslim who has a single brain cell knows the answer to that question. The question is whether to follow the Sunna of the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) as understood by Imam Shafi`i, or to follow the Sunna of the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) as understood by the mysterious, unnamed person, who is probably the author of the book that you’re holding in your hands.



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Reader Comments

ma sha’allah, that was an excellent article. jazakumullahu khaira.

As salamu `alaikum wa rahmatullah Shaykh Hamza,

May Allah increase you in sincerity, beneficial knowledge and accepted deeds.

I had no idea the entire post would end up in a witty punchline. Masha Allah, this was an excellent perspective on the issue.

Though I can’t help but say, this would have made for a nice brainteaser for the Introductory Arabic Class.

Nevertheless, this made my day :)…
“The question is whether to follow the Sunna of the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) as understood by Imam Shafi`i, or to follow the Sunna of the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) as understood by the mysterious, unnamed person, who is probably the author of the book that you’re holding in your hands.”

[…] SunniPath Blog - » Fiqh al-Shafi`i or Fiqh al-Sunna? […]

wa `alaykum as salam wa rahmatullah Sidi Tariq

This was actually a brainteaser for the Intermediate Arabic class that I’m currently teaching where we recently covered the difference between various kinds of association constructions. I thought posting the answer to the brainteaswer would give all of you Introductory Arabic students the energy to put in that extra bit of effort to make sure you pass your courses and make it to the next levels! :)

Hamza.

Jazak Allahu Khairan… that was very insightful.

I really enjoyed the mudh’af- mudh’af ilai explanation

AssalaamuAlaikum Sidi Hamza,

JazakAllahu Khairan for eloquent, precise and simple explanation of not only the issue but also the idafa constructions. May Allah preserve and increase you, Sidi.

It brings out very well, how lack of deep analysis of Arabic statements can lead us to draw conclusion which apparently looks correct but are the opposite and why we and others need intermediate level and advance level arabic language courses :):)
AssalaamuAlaikum Wa Rahmatullai Wa Barakatahu.

Assalamu ‘alaikum Shaykh Hamza,

That was awsome! I loved it. I miss your Arabic lessons. I hope to return to it pretty soon.

Wasalam,
Abdurasheed.

Salamu aleykum sidi

Thank you for youre post, but I do have one question: Are you saying that the idafa of a masdar to a word is idafa lafdhiyya? This is not what I have understod from the texts. The idafa lafdhiyya is only for ism al-fa’il, ism al-maf’ul and al-sifat al-mushabbaha. Isnt that so?

[…] Read the complete article here […]

Assalamu alaikum Fakhruddin

You are right, for ibn al-Haajib writes in al-Kaafiyah,

واللفظية أن يكون المضاف صفة مضافة إلى معمولها مثل ضارب زيد وحسن الوجه

:)

Salamu aleykum

I see now that there seems to be differents of opinion concerning this question. Both Ibn Aqil and al-Khudari holds the opinion that the idafa of a masdar is idafa ma’nawiyya, but al-Khudari mentions that there is an opinion stating that its idafa is lafdhiyya.

One thing that puzzles me:

“In post-Ajurrumiyya grammar manuals—such as the Qatr al-Nada of Ibn Hisham—scholars of Arabic grammar explain that an idafa is either a real idafa that actually associates one word to another—this is termed an idafa ma`nawiyya—or a “cosmetic” idafa that conceals something else going on behind the scenes—this is termed an idafa lafdhiyya.”

I thought it’s called idafa lafdhiyya because its not gaining ta’rif or takhsis from the idafa. If i’m mistaken, what is “going on behind the scenes” in a jumla lika “hadha daribu zaydin gadan”?

With all this said, the post is excellent in clarifying the difference between idafat al-masdar ila fa’ilihi or ila maf’ulihi

SubhanAllah. That was written beautifully and was pretty easy to understand.

[…] Read the whole article here. […]

[…] the full text by Shaykh Hamzah Karamali here  Explore posts in the same categories: […]

assalamu `alaykum wa rahmatullah

[This post is in response to Fakhrudin’s comments.]

Jazakallah khayr for your referenced feedback. I’m on the road right now and hence don’t have access to my grammar books. I will in-sha’Allah respond to your comments when I return home in about two weeks.

Hamza.

Asalamualaykum,

Masha’Allah a great post indeed. Please continue to enlighten us with such clear concise explanation for the relevant Islamic misconceptions.

Jazakumu Allahu khayr Shaykh Hamza!

Just one more thing. If i’m not mistaken another reason for calling a idafa “lafdhiyya” is because it’s construction from the beginning is “hadha daribun zaydan” but in order to make it easier to pronounce it’s changed to “hadha daribu zaydin” so it’s a idafa in pronounciation but not in meaning.

SubhanAllah! Jazakallahukhair for this article. I love the way you expalined arabic grammer. Its very clear and to the point, this entire article. May Allah reward you. Ameen

Nice, masha’Allah! Maybe I should take Shaykh Hamza’s Arabic class…

Jazakum Allah Khairan for such an excellent article which addresses such an important issue. I really appreciate how it brings to light the importance of having a good knowledge of Arabic to have a good understanding of the deen, as well as how those of us who are not fluent in Arabic need to be careful of following something that is based on a superficial or skewed understanding of the Arabic language. Also I am eagerly looking forward to taking your course the Peak of Eloquence this term, insha’Allah. May Allah increase us all in knowledge and understanding of Arabic and our Deen.

Ameen!

Assalaamu’alykum
Whenever I’ve heard people talking about following the Fiqh of Quran and Sunnah they usually say to follow at least one of the opinions of the 4 Imams. That is to say to follow the best position of the 4 imams with regards to the collective evidence of hadith available now. A friend told me about someone giving a talk saying that it is not about only choosing what suits you from the opinions of the 4 imams, but for you to follow what you believe is right. With this method you are using the interpretations of the sunna of at least 1 of the imams. Some people also say that the hadiths were not collected in the manner we have today and the imams gave interpretations according to the hadith they had.
Is it not possible that certain rulings of madhabs are more correct than others?
(By the way I was slightly confused about this whole issue, and still follow the Hanafi madhab. I wanted to clarify these aspects after reading the post)

Assalaamu’alaykum
I posted the previous comment and I just read the other blog post on the effect of Hadith on disagreement of the jurists and that cleared some of the questions I had. I didn’t realise how people without knowledge simplify certain issues. It reiterated the idea that non-scholars cannot delve into hadiths to get rulings. But it still left me with the question about taking the best collective positions of the imams. They have filtered hadith, and done extensive work on formulating islamic law. Is it valid to choose any of their rulings/opinions and go between schools of Fiqh without following any single one alone?
And a separate question, Can anyone in todays age ever hope to achieve the levels of scholarship of the great scholars of the past?